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There is no such thing as an Aryan race!
- Thread starter idklolimo
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"It's wiser to pay attention to the actual amount of ancestry rather than the culture inherited."
It isnt, though i didnt make aryans just seem like they recieved their title just like that. All aryans have some distant aryan ancestry, from 5% to even 50%
"Aryan in an ethnical sense and derives the ancestry from those Aryan nomads in single digits"
That would make sense, if the german and his ancestors(which the ancestors of iranics and indics did.....germans dont really seem to have aryan ancestry) claimed themselves as aryans and had any ancestry from aryans
"That 1/4 German person is also descended from Germans with much higher total German ancestry, especially if he/she was born in Germany."
By that logic it isnt too wrong to claim afghans, iranians, aryan indics and specially central asian iranics as aryans(steppe goes from 15% to 50%)
Again, no, it doesnt work like that. if your ancestors for thousands of years claims themselves as aryans, and their distant ancestors happens to be the first aryans, theyre simply aryans. You think these people for centuries claimed themselves as aryans???
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In a cultural sense, anyone can be anything, whatever they wish, even if they do trace little or some parts of their lineage to the holder population of that culture. We are arguing for different sides. By your example, I and a random Yemenite person share that common proto-semitic speaking ancestry with each other but that random Yemenite person has much more of that proto-semitic speaking ancestors DNA than I have. I could easily claim that I am "semitic" the same way that random Yemenite person can but it wouldn't be logical or fair would it.
"I could easily claim that I am "semitic""
The thing is though people didnt randomly just call themselves aryans. They been doing it for thousands of years. Even linguists and historians before DNA tests coined us as "aryans". Do you know why?
I dont know about semetic though?
"You seem to give a significant importance to what people claim"
Yes i do, because there didnt exist dna tests like today 100 years ago, while the aryan identity of indics and iranics is more than 2000 years old. People dont randomly make up claims, thats the thing. The ancestors of these indics and iranics been identifying themselves as aryans, and so did their descendants(indics + iranics) for centuries. There were no DNA test to measure "how aryan" anyone were, because if you were an aryan, youre an aryan. ENd of the story
And no, it aint like the fake sayyed claims of south asians, because the fake ones dont have anything to prove their actual sayed ancestry(yes, they made up those claims because of prestige. Aryans today on the other hand literally have very aryan nomadic elements to their ancestrial religions and culture, like using fire for worship, or worshipping the gods of the aryan nomads). The actual ones usually have documentation of their ancestry.
By the way EVEN if we went by dna tests, all/most of these aryans scores aryan haplogroups(well most. Ossetians dont get paternal haplogroups because founder effect, despite being aryans). And they always score some "aryan" ancestry too.
Again, get this:
Aryan identity cant be treated as an ethnicity or like any ethnicities today, since it isnt an ethnicity. Its an identity shared with ALL of the aryan descendants today, no matter the amount of steppe ancestry
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The term "Aryan" simply means someone who speaks a Indo-European language as their first language, it has nothing to do with race, some anthropologists in the past try to make Aryan into a sub-racial category of the Caucasian race, & then the Nazis stole the term to refer to Northern Europeans, Aryan is a linguistic group, not a racial one.
A African-American who speaks English & a Indigenous Mexican who speaks Spanish are both considered Aryan, because they speak a Indo-European language, but a Basque doesn't speak a Indo-European language, so they are not Aryan.
A African-American who speaks English & a Indigenous Mexican who speaks Spanish are both considered Aryan, because they speak a Indo-European language, but a Basque doesn't speak a Indo-European language, so they are not Aryan.
can I know which calc/model shows ossetians as having the most steppe, assuming aryan=steppe? I'm genuinely curious. Cause I was under the impression that many northern indic groups get just as much steppe as iranics if not more among groups like haryana jats than any iranic group besides pamiri tajiks.
what are you saying
no, it doesnt go like that
its like this
being descendants of aryans + speaking aryan, not any random indo-european languages means being aryan
no, an african-american wouldnt be aryan.
simple
idklolimo
Well-known member
False. No ayranz
idklolimo
Well-known member
Afro-american ayranz lol
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@vengeance check this out
Afro-American real ayranz
lol
Iran_ChL all the way. Iran_ChL is a POWERHOUSE component.
Iran_ChL is a true ARYAN component. It was a component not only of the true Aryan ever existed, the Aryan MEDES of the Median Empire, but it was also a component of the Ubaid Sumerians, BMAC and also a component that penetrated the Steppes/Yamnaya Horizon and gave rise to the late second stage PIEans.
Iran_ChL is a true ARYAN component. It was a component not only of the true Aryan ever existed, the Aryan MEDES of the Median Empire, but it was also a component of the Ubaid Sumerians, BMAC and also a component that penetrated the Steppes/Yamnaya Horizon and gave rise to the late second stage PIEans.
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is this why the earliest r1a haplogroup was found in northern russia?
The oldest R1a to date
My popular map of the oldest instances of Y-haplogroup R1a in the ancient DNA record has a new entry: PES001 from the recent Saag et al. pr...
eurogenes.blogspot.com
R1a in the modern EASTERN Iranic people is most likely related to the Central Asian Scythians. I wouldn't want to call the Scythians model purebred Aryans. Some even have their doubts whether those were 'Iranic' in the first place.
R1a in Central Asia is really nothing special. R1a* in Kurdistan is msot likely older.
The real ARYANS aka the Western Iranic Guto-Medes had always more R1b and J2 in them than R1a.
Btw, I am not against Y-DNA R1a. My own paternal Y-DNA lineage is R1a* and it is just native to Kurdistan. It has absolutely nothing to do with Russia. I think I am going to take another test, becasue I am starting to think that my R1a* is most likely R1a2 and related to the CImmerian R1a2c
Iran_ChL means civilization, and inventive high culture component.
Iran_ChL = Sumerians, Median Empire, later Persian Empire!
Iran_ChL = true ARYAN component
R1a in Central Asia is really nothing special. R1a* in Kurdistan is msot likely older.
The real ARYANS aka the Western Iranic Guto-Medes had always more R1b and J2 in them than R1a.
Btw, I am not against Y-DNA R1a. My own paternal Y-DNA lineage is R1a* and it is just native to Kurdistan. It has absolutely nothing to do with Russia. I think I am going to take another test, becasue I am starting to think that my R1a* is most likely R1a2 and related to the CImmerian R1a2c
Iran_ChL means civilization, and inventive high culture component.
Iran_ChL = Sumerians, Median Empire, later Persian Empire!
Iran_ChL = true ARYAN component
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