This is an anthropology forum where we cover all sorts of topics and discussions. Once signed in, you'll be able to participate on this site by adding your own topics and posts. Register today to become a member!
The reason Assyrian and Arabic languages are connected is because Arabs borrowed heavily from Assyrian after their conquest of Mesopotamia in the 7th century A.D not because they share DNA or they have the same origin.
You need to separate language from DNA.
For example I speak only English at home, does that make me an Indo-European or a Germanic? The answer is no, just because I adopted a Germanic Indo-European language that I use daily, but I still do not carry Germanic or Indo-European DNA.
Tomorrow...
Many other ethnic groups from outside the Middle East share different amounts of the so called Natufian DNA including most Europeans to a certain degree.
Does that mean all those who share are part Semitic?
I don't think so.
It is not about being a sandnigger or not being one.
Which genes do I share with Arabs and Somalis?
Per 23andme I have 98.9% North West Asian (Iranians, Caucasians & Mesopotamians) and 1.1% Levantine.
If what you said was true then I would have had 98.9% Arab and North African DNA not (Iranians, Caucasians & Mesopotamians).
Then why is the Semitic gene label based on Yemeni's and other Arabs, Ethiopian and Somali speakers rather than Assyrians and Mizrahi Jews who are the most ancient and original Semitic speakers?
Unless you are implying that we share the same genes which the data show exactly the opposite.
It is hard for me tell them apart, I am guessing the first person is Kurdish, because he can pass as an Assyrian. The rest are hard to tell whether they are Turks or Kurds.